medicine
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10 sample questions
Pharmacology MCQ Practice Test
Medication actions and effects
Q1. A patient with a history of myocardial infarction is prescribed a beta-blocker to reduce the risk of subsequent cardiovascular events. Which of the following beta-blockers is known for its intrinsic sympathomimetic activity (ISA) and is often used in patients with chronic heart failure?
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A. Metoprolol
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B. Carvedilol
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C. Nadolol
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D. Pindolol ✓
Explanation: Pindolol is a non-selective beta-blocker that possesses intrinsic sympathomimetic activity (ISA), which means it has a weak agonist effect on beta-receptors. This property makes it useful in patients with chronic heart failure, as it can help to maintain some degree of beta-receptor stimulation while still providing protection against excessive sympathetic tone.
Q2. A 55-year-old patient with a history of hypertension and hyperlipidemia is prescribed a medication that is a combination of a diuretic and a Î-blocker. Which of the following is a potential side effect of this medication?
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A. Increased risk of hypokalemia ✓
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B. Worsening of peripheral vascular disease
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C. Increased risk of hyperglycemia
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D. Increased risk of hyperuricemia
Explanation: The combination of a diuretic and a Î-blocker can lead to increased risk of hypokalemia due to the diuretic-induced potassium loss and the Î-blocker-induced increased potassium excretion.
Q3. Which of the following medications is a selective 5-HT3 receptor antagonist used to prevent nausea and vomiting associated with chemotherapy, particularly in patients receiving highly emetogenic chemotherapy?
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A. Ondansetron ✓
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B. Granisetron
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C. Tropisetron
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D. Palonosetron
Explanation: Ondansetron is a selective 5-HT3 receptor antagonist that is commonly used to prevent nausea and vomiting associated with chemotherapy. It works by blocking the action of serotonin on the 5-HT3 receptors in the brain, which are responsible for causing nausea and vomiting. Granisetron, tropisetron, and palonosetron are also 5-HT3 receptor antagonists, but they are not as commonly used as ondansetron for this purpose.
Q4. A 55-year-old patient with a history of hypertension and hyperlipidemia is prescribed a medication that is a combination of a statin and a fibrate for the management of dyslipidemia. Which of the following is a potential side effect of this medication?
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A. Muscle pain and weakness ✓
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B. Gastrointestinal upset and diarrhea
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C. Hypersensitivity reactions and rash
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D. Hepatotoxicity and elevated liver enzymes
Explanation: The combination of a statin and a fibrate increases the risk of muscle toxicity, which can manifest as muscle pain and weakness.
Q5. A 55-year-old patient with a history of hypertension and hyperlipidemia is prescribed a combination of "amlodipine" and "simvastatin". Which of the following is a potential side effect of this combination therapy?
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A. Increased risk of bleeding due to platelet aggregation inhibition
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B. Reduced risk of myopathy due to decreased statin levels
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C. Increased risk of hypotension due to additive vasodilatory effects ✓
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D. Reduced efficacy of amlodipine due to decreased bioavailability
Explanation: Amlodipine is a calcium channel blocker that causes vasodilation, while simvastatin is a statin that can also cause vasodilation. When combined, the additive vasodilatory effects can increase the risk of hypotension in susceptible patients.
Q6. A 35-year-old patient with a history of migraines is prescribed rizatriptan for an acute attack. Which of the following is a potential side effect of this medication?
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A. Serotonin syndrome
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B. Drowsiness
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C. Blurred vision
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D. Hypertension ✓
Explanation: Rizatriptan, a selective serotonin receptor agonist, can cause vasoconstriction and increase blood pressure. Hypertension is a potential side effect, especially in patients with a history of cardiovascular issues or uncontrolled hypertension.
Q7. A 45-year-old woman with a history of hypertension and hyperlipidemia is prescribed rosuvastatin for the treatment of her dyslipidemia. However, she also has a history of peptic ulcer disease and is taking omeprazole. What is the most appropriate dose of rosuvastatin in this patient?
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A. 10 mg once daily ✓
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B. 20 mg once daily
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C. 40 mg once daily
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D. 80 mg once daily
Explanation: Rosuvastatin is a statin that is metabolized by the CYP3A4 enzyme. Omeprazole is an inhibitor of this enzyme, which can increase the levels of rosuvastatin in the body. To minimize the risk of myopathy and rhabdomyolysis, a lower dose of rosuvastatin should be used in patients taking omeprazole.
Q8. A patient with a history of kidney stones is prescribed a medication to increase the pH of their urine. Which of the following medications is most likely to be prescribed?
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A. Allopurinol
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B. Triamterene
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C. Potassium citrate ✓
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D. Furosemide
Explanation: Potassium citrate is a medication that increases the pH of urine, making it less acidic and thus less likely to form kidney stones. Allopurinol is a uric acid-lowering drug, but it is not primarily used to treat kidney stones. Triamterene is a potassium-sparing diuretic, and furosemide is a loop diuretic, neither of which directly affects urine pH.
Q9. A 35-year-old patient with a history of recurrent Épistaxis (nosebleeds) is diagnosed with Hereditary Hemorrhagic Telangiectasia (HHT). The patient's physician decides to initiate treatment with a medication that works by inhibiting the activity of a specific protein involved in angiogenesis. Which of the following medications is most likely being prescribed?
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A. Bevacizumab, a monoclonal antibody that targets vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) ✓
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B. Paclitaxel, a microtubule stabilizer used in chemotherapy
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C. Sirolimus, an mTOR inhibitor used to prevent organ transplant rejection
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D. Cyclophosphamide, an alkylating agent used in chemotherapy
Explanation: Bevacizumab works by binding to VEGF, preventing its interaction with its receptor and thereby inhibiting angiogenesis, which is a key feature of HHT. This makes it an effective treatment for this condition.
Q10. A 55-year-old patient with a history of chronic kidney disease is prescribed empagliflozin for type 2 diabetes management. Which of the following is a mechanism of action of empagliflozin?
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A. Inhibits the reabsorption of glucose in the renal proximal tubules ✓
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B. Increases the release of glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1) from the intestines
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C. Reduces the production of glucose in the liver
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D. Increases the sensitivity of skeletal muscle to insulin
Explanation: Empagliflozin is a sodium-glucose cotransporter 2 (SGLT2) inhibitor, which works by inhibiting the reabsorption of glucose in the renal proximal tubules, leading to increased excretion of glucose in the urine.
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