medicine beginner 10 sample questions

Cancer Types MCQ Practice Test

Malignant growth classifications

Q1. A 35-year-old woman with a history of BRCA1 mutation is diagnosed with a type of breast cancer that is characterized by the absence of estrogen and progesterone receptors, and the presence of HER2 protein overexpression. Which of the following cancer types is most likely to be diagnosed in this patient?

Explanation: Triple-negative breast cancer is a subtype of breast cancer that lacks estrogen receptors, progesterone receptors, and excess HER2 protein. It is more common in women with a BRCA1 mutation and tends to have a poorer prognosis than other subtypes of breast cancer.

Q2. A 35-year-old woman is diagnosed with serous cystadenocarcinoma of the ovary. Which of the following histological subtypes is most commonly associated with this type of cancer?

Explanation: Serous carcinomas are the most common histological subtype associated with serous cystadenocarcinomas. Serous borderline tumors are a precursor, but not the most common subtype of the invasive cancer.

Q3. A 45-year-old male patient is diagnosed with a rare type of cancer that affects the pancreas and has a distinctive genetic mutation. Which of the following cancer types is most likely to be associated with this genetic mutation?

Explanation: Pancreatic neuroendocrine tumors (PNETs) are a type of cancer that can be associated with genetic mutations, including mutations in the MEN1 gene. MEN1 is a tumor suppressor gene that, when mutated, can lead to the development of PNETs. This type of cancer is often seen in patients with Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia type 1 (MEN1) syndrome.

Q4. A 45-year-old woman is diagnosed with a type of breast cancer that is characterized by the absence of estrogen receptors and the presence of a specific genetic mutation. Which of the following cancer types is most likely to be responsible for this diagnosis?

Explanation: Triple-negative breast cancer is a subtype of breast cancer that lacks estrogen receptors, progesterone receptors, and excess HER2 protein. It is often associated with a specific genetic mutation and is more aggressive than other types of breast cancer.

Q5. A 35-year-old woman with a history of BRCA1 mutation presents with a palpable mass in her left breast. A core needle biopsy reveals a tumor with a high-grade neuroendocrine component. Which of the following cancer types is most likely?

Explanation: Metaplastic triple-negative breast cancer is a subtype of breast cancer that often presents with a high-grade neuroendocrine component, especially in BRCA1 mutation carriers. It is characterized by the presence of both epithelial and mesenchymal components, including neuroendocrine differentiation.

Q6. A 45-year-old female patient is diagnosed with a type of breast cancer that is estrogen receptor-positive and HER2-negative. Which of the following targeted therapies is most likely to be effective in treating her disease?

Explanation: Anastrozole is an aromatase inhibitor that is effective in treating estrogen receptor-positive breast cancers. It works by reducing the levels of estrogen in the body, which can help slow the growth of cancer cells.

Q7. A 35-year-old woman is diagnosed with invasive lobular carcinoma, a subtype of breast cancer. Which of the following is a characteristic feature of this cancer type?

Explanation: Invasive lobular carcinoma (ILC) often presents differently than invasive ductal carcinoma (IDC). ILC tumors are more likely to be subtle and less easily felt as a distinct mass. They tend to grow in a single-file pattern, making them less likely to form a palpable lump. ILC is also more likely to be estrogen receptor-positive.

Q8. A 45-year-old female patient is diagnosed with a type of breast cancer that is estrogen receptor-positive and HER2-negative. Which of the following targeted therapies is most likely to be prescribed?

Explanation: Anastrozole is an aromatase inhibitor that is commonly used to treat estrogen receptor-positive breast cancer in postmenopausal women. It works by blocking the production of estrogen, which can fuel the growth of certain breast cancer cells.

Q9. Which mechanism explains the efficacy of PARP inhibitors (e.g., olaparib) in BRCA1/2-mutated cancers?

Explanation: BRCA-mutant tumor cells lack high-fidelity homologous recombination; PARP trapping on DNA leaves them reliant on error-prone repair, so PARP inhibition is synthetically lethal. PARP inhibitors are FDA-approved for germline BRCA-mutated HER2-negative metastatic breast cancer.

Q10. A 35-year-old woman is diagnosed with a rare type of ovarian cancer that is characterized by the presence of small, round, blue cells. Which of the following cancer types is most likely to be diagnosed in this patient?

Explanation: Small cell carcinoma is a rare and aggressive type of ovarian cancer that is often characterized by the presence of small, round, blue cells. It is typically associated with a poor prognosis and is often treated with chemotherapy and targeted therapy.

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Cancer Types MCQ Practice Test | Mind Hustle